NTA UGC NET Paper-1 17-October-2020 Shift – Morning Question With Solution
NTA UGC NET Paper-1
Date- 9-Oct-2020, Shift- Evening
NTA UGC NET Paper-1
Date- 17-Oct-2020, Shift- Evening
| Q1➡ | Comprehension: The table below embodies data on the number of candidates who appeared for an interview (I) and got admission (II) in five engineering disciplines during the year 2014 to 2019. In accordance with the table, answer the questions 1 – 5:  * What is the percentage increase/decrease in the number of candidates admitted in Civil Engineering discipline from the year 2015 to 2016? |
| i ➥ 9.09 % |
| ii ➥ 8.43 % |
| iii ➥ 8.33 % |
| iv ➥ 9.19 % |
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| Q2➡ | Comprehension: The table below embodies data on the number of candidates who appeared for an interview (I) and got admission (II) in five engineering disciplines during the year 2014 to 2019. In accordance with the table, answer the questions 1 – 5: *What is the percentage of the total number of candidates admitted to the total number of candidates interviewed for all the years in Chemical Engineering discipline? |
| i ➥ 8.1 % |
| ii ➥ 91.68 % |
| iii ➥ 8.8 % |
| iv ➥ 91.86 % |
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| Q3➡ | Comprehension: The table below embodies data on the number of candidates who appeared for an interview (I) and got admission (II) in five engineering disciplines during the year 2014 to 2019. In accordance with the table, answer the questions 1 – 5: * What is the average number of candidates who appeared for an interview in the year 2016 for admission to all the five engineering disciplines? |
| i ➥ 1216 |
| ii ➥ 1314 |
| iii ➥ 1316 |
| iv ➥ 1246 |
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| Q4➡ | Comprehension: The table below embodies data on the number of candidates who appeared for an interview (I) and got admission (II) in five engineering disciplines during the year 2014 to 2019. In accordance with the table, answer the questions 1 – 5: * The ratio of number of candidates who appeared in an interview for admission to Petroleum Engineering discipline in the year 2014 compared to the number of candidates who got admission in Electrical Engineering discipline in the year 2015 is: |
| i ➥ 3: 5 |
| ii ➥ 6: 7 |
| iii ➥ 7: 6 |
| iv ➥ 5: 3 |
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| Q5➡ | Comprehension: The table below embodies data on the number of candidates who appeared for an interview (I) and got admission (II) in five engineering disciplines during the year 2014 to 2019. In accordance with the table, answer the questions 1 – 5: * What is the difference between the total number of candidates who appeared for an interview over the six years in Aerospace and Electrical Engineering disciplines? |
| i ➥ 334 |
| ii ➥ 61 |
| iii ➥ 66 |
| iv ➥ 344 |
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| Q6➡ | Which of the following have been identified as key behaviours contributing to effective teaching? (A) Lesson clarity (B) Instructional variety (C) Using student ideas and contribution (D) Engagement in learning process (E) Structuring Choose the correct answer from the options given below: |
| i ➥ (A) , (B) and (D) only |
| ii ➥ (A) , (B) and (C) only |
| iii ➥ (B) , (C) and (D) only |
| iv ➥ (C) , (D) and (E) only |
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| Q7➡ | In which of the following, the direction of influence is mainly one way: |
| i ➥ Counselling |
| ii ➥ Guiding |
| iii ➥ Teaching |
| iv ➥ Learning |
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| Q8➡ | The communication process is active and interactive at a very high level in which of the following level of teaching? |
| i ➥ Reflective level |
| ii ➥ Understanding level |
| iii ➥ Memory level |
| iv ➥ Autonomous development level |
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| Q9➡ | Given below are two statements: Statement I: In order to be effective, teaching and testing must go together. Statement II: Feedback does not form an essential component of formative assessment. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: |
| i ➥ Both Statement I and Statement II are correct |
| ii ➥ Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect |
| iii ➥ Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect |
| iv ➥ Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct |
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| Q10➡ | Which of the following ‘need strengths’ in Maslow՚s hierarchy are related to higher order learning? (A) Physiological needs (B) Safety needs (C) Social needs (D) Esteem needs (E) Needs for self-actualization Choose the correct answer from the options given below: |
| i ➥ (A) and (B) only |
| ii ➥ (B) and (C) only |
| iii ➥ (C) and (D) only |
| iv ➥ (D) and (E) only |
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| Q11➡ | List I mentions various methods of research while list II offers their description. Match list I with List II:  Choose the correct answer from the options given below: |
| i ➥ (A) – (I) , (B) – (II) , (C) -III, (D) – (IV) |
| ii ➥ (A) – (IV) , (B) – (III) , (C) – (II) , (D) – (I) |
| iii ➥ (A) – (II) , (B) – (I) , (C) – (IV) , (D) – (III) |
| iv ➥ (A) – (Ill) , (B) – (IV) , (C) – (I) , (D) – (II) |
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| Q12➡ | Which of the following features best describe an independent variable in research? (A) It is the cause in the cause-effect relationship. (B) It is the effect in the cause-effect relationship. (C) It is the condition or characteristic which is manipulated in an experimental study. (D) It is the variable which is placed under control. (E) It is a kind of response variable. Choose the correct answer from the options given below: |
| i ➥ (A) and (B) only |
| ii ➥ (B) and (C) only |
| iii ➥ (A) and (C) only |
| iv ➥ (D) and (E) only |
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| Q13➡ | When a particular statistics in a research situation is evidently declared to be significant, which of the following decisions will be considered tenable? (A) Null hypothesis is rejected (B) Alternative hypothesis is accepted (C) Null hypothesis is accepted (D) Alternative hypothesis is rejected (E) Null hypothesis along with the alternate hypothesis are accepted. Choose the correct answer from the options given below: |
| i ➥ (B) and (C) only |
| ii ➥ (C) and (D) only |
| iii ➥ (D) and (E) only |
| iv ➥ (A) and (B) only |
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| Q14➡ | Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R) : Assertion (A) : Data must be authentic before it can be of any value in a historical research, yet proof of authenticity does not establish ′ its value, it must also be accurate. Reason (R) : External criticism is, therefore, referred to as lower criticism of the data. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: |
| i ➥ Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A) |
| ii ➥ Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A) |
| iii ➥ (A) is correct but (R) is not correct |
| iv ➥ (A) is not correct but (R) is correct |
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| Q15➡ | Given below are two statements: Statement I: Chance or accidental errors in research will cause obtained results to depart from the true value as often in one direction or in another. Statement II: Systematic error causes obtained results in research to vary in a particular direction and is far more likely to catch the researcher by surprise than is chance error. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate from the options given below: |
| i ➥ Both Statement I and Statement II are correct |
| ii ➥ Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect |
| iii ➥ Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect |
| iv ➥ Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct |
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| Q16➡ | Cognitive dissonance in classroom communication is the result of |
| i ➥ Filtering of message |
| ii ➥ Student interest |
| iii ➥ Student-based interaction |
| iv ➥ Chaotic conditions |
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| Q17➡ | Which of the following can be the major communication barriers to online teaching? (A) Technology (B) Legalities (C) Student community (D) Culture (E) Gender Choose the correct answer from the options given below: |
| i ➥ (A) , (B) , (C) only |
| ii ➥ (A) , (D) , (E) only |
| iii ➥ (B) , (C) , (D) only |
| iv ➥ (C) , (D) , (E) Only |
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| Q18➡ | Given below are two statements: Statement I: Aggressive and inflammatory statements by the teacher make the classroom communication academically effective. Statement II: Choice of appropriate words lends credence to classroom communication processes. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: |
| i ➥ Both Statement I and Statement II are true |
| ii ➥ Both Statement I and Statement II are false |
| iii ➥ Statement I is correct but Statement II is false |
| iv ➥ Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is true |
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| Q19➡ | Identify the correct sequence of the media production process. (A) Content Preparation (B) Planning (C) Production (D) Transmission (E) Feedback analysis Choose the correct answer from the options given below: |
| i ➥ (A) , (B) , (C) , (D) , (E) |
| ii ➥ (B) , (C) , (D) , A) , (E) |
| iii ➥ (D) , (C) , (B) , (E) , (A) |
| iv ➥ (B) , (A) , (C) , (D) , (E) |
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| Q20➡ | Match List I with List II  Choose the correct answer from the options given below: |
| i ➥ (A) – (III) , (B) – (IV) , (C) – (II) , (D) – (I) |
| ii ➥ (A) – (II) , (B) – (III) , (C) – (I) , (D) – (IV) |
| iii ➥ (A) – (I) , (B) – (II) , (C) – (IV) , (D) – (III) |
| iv ➥ (A) – (IV) , (B) – (I) , (C) – (III) , (D) – (II) |
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| Q21➡ | The average of 70 numbers is 32. If each number is increased by 3, then the new average will become |
| i ➥ 31 |
| ii ➥ 33 |
| iii ➥ 35 |
| iv ➥ 37 |
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| Q22➡ | A person in a car drives along a straight road from point A to point B at a speed of 60 km/hour for 15 minutes and then from point B to point C at a speed of 90 km/hour for 10 minutes. The average speed of his travel from point A to C is |
| i ➥ 75km/hr |
| ii ➥ 72km/hr |
| iii ➥ 68 km/hr |
| iv ➥ 78 km/hr |
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| Q23➡ | A student scores 55,60, 65 and 70 respectively in English. Physics. Chemistry and Mathematics. If the credits assigned to English. Physics. Chemistry and Mathematics are 2,3,3 and 4 respectively then what would be the average mark of the student? |
| i ➥ 62.50 |
| ii ➥ 63.75 |
| iii ➥ 64.25 |
| iv ➥ 64.75 |
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| Q24➡ | A clock takes 5 seconds to strike 5 times at 5 O՚clock. How long will it take to strike 9 times at 9 O՚clock? |
| i ➥ 9 sec. |
| ii ➥ 10 sec. |
| iii ➥ 12 sec. |
| iv ➥ 8 sec. |
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| Q25➡ | A shopkeeper sells an item at a discount of 40 % on the items listed price of ₹ 1500.00. He still makes a profit of 20 % on the original cost of the item. What is the original cost of the item? |
| i ➥ 500 |
| ii ➥ 750 |
| iii ➥ 600 |
| iv ➥ 1080 |
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| Q26➡ | In terms of Indian logic, “This hill has smoke which is invariably associated with fire”, is called: |
| i ➥ Pratigya or proposition |
| ii ➥ Universal concomitance together with an example |
| iii ➥ Upanaya – the application of the universal concomitance to the present case |
| iv ➥ Conclusion or Nigamana drawn from the preceding proposition |
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| Q27➡ | Identify the features of Aristotelian syllogism from the following: (A) It is deductive — inductive and formal material (B) It is only deductive and formal (C) The major and minor terms stand apart in the premises (D) It is verbalistic (E) Verbal form is not the essence of inference Choose the correct answer from the options given below: |
| i ➥ (A) , (B) and (C) only |
| ii ➥ (A) , (C) and (E) only |
| iii ➥ (B) , (C) and (D) only |
| iv ➥ (A) , (D) and (E) only |
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| Q28➡ | When the middle term is both positively and negatively related to the major term, the inference is called. |
| i ➥ Based on uniformity of co-existence |
| ii ➥ Kevalanavayi |
| iii ➥ Kevala vyatireki |
| iv ➥ Anavaya vyatireki |
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| Q29➡ | From the following identify those which illustrate the fallacy of the unproved middle? (A) Ashravasidha (B) Swarupasidha (C) Vyapyatvasidha (D) Virudha (E) Badhita Choose the correct answer from the options given below: |
| i ➥ (A) , (B) and (C) only |
| ii ➥ (B) , (C) and (D) only |
| iii ➥ (A) , (D) and (E) only |
| iv ➥ (A) , (C) and (D) only |
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| Q30➡ | Given below are two statements: Statement I: Upamiti is defined as knowledge of the relation between a word and its denotation. Statement II: Verbal testimony is the statement of a trustworthy person and consists in understanding its meaning. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: |
| i ➥ Both Statement I and Statement II are correct |
| ii ➥ Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect |
| iii ➥ Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect |
| iv ➥ Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct |
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| Q31➡ | Which of the following statements is true in respect of computers? |
| i ➥ Software is loaded into secondary storage from RAM and is then executed by CPU. |
| ii ➥ Software is loaded into RAM from secondary storage and is then executed by CPU. |
| iii ➥ Software is loaded into RAM from secondary storage and is then executed by motherboard. |
| iv ➥ Software is loaded into secondary storage from RAM and is then executed by motherboard. |
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| Q32➡ | Given below ax two statements: Statement I: ‘SWAYAM’ an initiative of the Government of India, aims at providing affordable and quality education to the citizens. Statement II: ‘SWAYAM’ aims at promoting the education and health of adolescent girls. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: |
| i ➥ Both Statement I and Statement II are true |
| ii ➥ Both Statement I and Statement II are false |
| iii ➥ Statement I is correct but Statement II is false |
| iv ➥ Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is true |
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| Q33➡ | Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R) : Assertion (A) : Random Access Memory (RAM) is volatile and stores data/programs currently in use. Reason (R) : RAM is a storage medium that retains its contents even after the supply of electricity has been turned off. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: |
| i ➥ Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A) |
| ii ➥ Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A) |
| iii ➥ (A) is true but (R) is false |
| iv ➥ (A) is false but (R) is true |
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| Q34➡ | Match List I with List II:  Choose the correct answer from the options given below: |
| i ➥ (A) – (II) , (B) – (IV) , (C) – (III) , (D) – (I) |
| ii ➥ (A) – (III) , (B) – (I) , (C) – (II) , (D) – (IV) |
| iii ➥ (A) – (IV) , (B) – (I) , (C) – (II) , (D) – (III) |
| iv ➥ (A) – (III) , (B) – (IV) , (C) – (II) , (D) – (I) |
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| Q35➡ | Consider the following incomplete sentence: Wi-Fi is short for Wireless Fidelity and it is a set of for using short range to allow computing to connect to a LEN or to the Internet. Complete the above sentence by choosing the correct words in order from the following list: (A) Standards (B) Waves (C) Devices Choose the correct answer from the options given below: |
| i ➥ (C) , (B) , (A) |
| ii ➥ (C) , (A) , (B) |
| iii ➥ (A) , (C) , (B) |
| iv ➥ (A) , (B) , (C) |
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| Q36➡ | Contamination of aquatic environment by Polychlorinated Biphenyls (PCBs) can originate from (A) Sewage effluent (B) Waste incinerators (C) Toxic dumps (D) Thermal power plants (E) Transport sector Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: |
| i ➥ (A) , (C) , (E) only |
| ii ➥ (A) , (B) , (D) , (E) only |
| iii ➥ (B) , (C) , (D) only |
| iv ➥ (A) , (B) , (C) only |
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| Q37➡ | Given below are two statements: Statement I: Emissions of hydrocarbons and carbon monoxide are inherently very low from diesel vehicles. Statement II: Diesel driven vehicles are inherently more fuel efficient compared to petrol driven vehicles. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: |
| i ➥ Both Statement I and Statement II are correct |
| ii ➥ Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect |
| iii ➥ Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect |
| iv ➥ Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct |
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| Q38➡ | If the intensity of a given noise increases two-fold, the noise level in decibels (dB) increases by |
| i ➥ ~2dB |
| ii ➥ ~3dB |
| iii ➥ ~6dB |
| iv ➥ ~10dB |
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| Q39➡ | Which of the foIIowing sources of energy on combustion produces maximum carbon dioxide per unit of energy output or heat content? |
| i ➥ Coal (sub-bituminous) |
| ii ➥ Natural gas |
| iii ➥ Diesel fuel and heating oil |
| iv ➥ Gasoline (without ethanol) |
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| Q40➡ | Formulation of long term — low emission development strategies by each country was suggested under |
| i ➥ Paris Agreement |
| ii ➥ Montreal Protocol |
| iii ➥ International solar alliance |
| iv ➥ Kyoto Protocol |
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| Q41➡ | Which of the following types of institutions come under the ambit of National Board of Accreditation (NBA) ? |
| i ➥ Teacher education institutions |
| ii ➥ Technical institutions |
| iii ➥ Agriculture institutions |
| iv ➥ Medical institutions |
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| Q42➡ | Ayurveda, which deals with indigenous system of medicine, could be traced to: |
| i ➥ Rigveda |
| ii ➥ Yajurveda |
| iii ➥ Samaveda |
| iv ➥ Atharvaveda |
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| Q43➡ | Which of the following are indicators of external accountability for an institution of higher learning? (A) Provision for professional development of teachers. (B) Utilization pattern of library and technical resources. (C) Relevance of courses to the societal needs. (D) Performance of students in public examinations. (E) Employment pattern of pass-out students. Choose the correct answer from the options given below: |
| i ➥ (A) , (B) , (C) only |
| ii ➥ (B) , (C) , (D) only |
| iii ➥ (C) , (D) , (E) only |
| iv ➥ (D) , (E) , (A) only |
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| Q44➡ | Which statutory body of a University has the power to accord formal approval to the programmes and courses of studies? |
| i ➥ Senate |
| ii ➥ Syndicate |
| iii ➥ Academic Council |
| iv ➥ Board of Studies |
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| Q45➡ | Which of the following are objectives of a performance appraisal system? (A) To help an employee in finding out his/her own strengths and weaknesses. (B) To help in creating desirable organizational ethos. (C) To help in identifying people for the purpose of motivating and training them for new roles. (D) To help in distinguishing the non-performers from performers. (E) To enable learners to understand the weakness in the system. Choose the correct answer from the options given below: |
| i ➥ (A) , (B) , (C) only |
| ii ➥ (B) , (C) , (D) only |
| iii ➥ (C) , (D) , (E) only |
| iv ➥ (E) , (D) , (A) only |
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Q46➡ |  *The passage focuses on the idea of |
| i ➥ Importance of power struggle |
| ii ➥ Different forms and structures of power |
| iii ➥ The need for power division in the society |
| iv ➥ Harnessing personal power in the interest of co-existence |
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| Q47➡ | * Interplay of forms of power is |
| i ➥ The essence of success in our pursuits |
| ii ➥ Distinctly gender-based |
| iii ➥ Nothing but assertion of power |
| iv ➥ Needed for the creation of world |
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| Q48➡ | * Loss of personal power in the society is attributed to |
| i ➥ Rigid human relations |
| ii ➥ Aggressiveness of the oppressors |
| iii ➥ Weakness of the oppressed |
| iv ➥ Power struggle in society |
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| Q49➡ | * The power relations in a society tend to |
| i ➥ Hurt self-accomplishments by people |
| ii ➥ Improve the people՚s abilities |
| iii ➥ Increase self-esteem |
| iv ➥ Have more oppressors than the oppressed |
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| Q50➡ | * Relationship of different type of power among people will lead to |
| i ➥ Social diversity |
| ii ➥ Hierarchical structure |
| iii ➥ Balance of power in society |
| iv ➥ Subjugation of the weak and meek |
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NTA UGC NET Paper-1
Date- 9-Oct-2020, Shift- Evening
NTA UGC NET Paper-1
Date- 17-Oct-2020, Shift- Evening