UGC NET Paper-1 30-September-2020 Shift – Evening Question With Solution
UGC NET Paper-1 30-September-2020 Shift – Evening Question With Solution
Q1➡| Comprehension: Direction :- Study the data in the given table and answer the questions that follow The table below provides data on the percentage (%) distribution of job vacancies in IT companies situated in various Indian cities in the year 2009 and 2019. In the year 2009, the total number of vacancies was 5.4 lakhs and in the year 2019, it was 8.6 lakhs. Ques- 1 What is the total number of vacancies available in the city of Chennai in 2009 and in that of Mumbai in the year 2019?
Q2➡| Comprehension: Direction :- Study the data in the given table and answer the questions that follow The table below provides data on the percentage (%) distribution of job vacancies in IT companies situated in various Indian cities in the year 2009 and 2019. In the year 2009, the total number of vacancies was 5.4 lakhs and in the year 2019, it was 8.6 lakhs. Ques- 2 If the number of vacancies in the city of Pune is 48000 in the year 2019 and the percentage distribution is the same as given in the table, then what is the number of vacancies available in NCR in 2019?
Q3➡| Comprehension: Direction :- Study the data in the given table and answer the questions that follow The table below provides data on the percentage (%) distribution of job vacancies in IT companies situated in various Indian cities in the year 2009 and 2019. In the year 2009, the total number of vacancies was 5.4 lakhs and in the year 2019, it was 8.6 lakhs. Ques- 3 What is the difference between the number of vacancies available in the city of Bangalore in the year 2019 and 2009?
Q4➡| Comprehension: Direction :- Study the data in the given table and answer the questions that follow The table below provides data on the percentage (%) distribution of job vacancies in IT companies situated in various Indian cities in the year 2009 and 2019. In the year 2009, the total number of vacancies was 5.4 lakhs and in the year 2019, it was 8.6 lakhs. Ques- 4 What is the approximate percentage rise seen in vacancies available in the city of Hyderabad from 2009 to 2019?
Q5➡| Comprehension: Direction :- Study the data in the given table and answer the questions that follow The table below provides data on the percentage (%) distribution of job vacancies in IT companies situated in various Indian cities in the year 2009 and 2019. In the year 2009, the total number of vacancies was 5.4 lakhs and in the year 2019, it was 8.6 lakhs. Ques- 5 What is the average number of vacancies available in the city of Hyderabad in the year 2009 and 2019?
Q6➡| Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R Assertion A: Universality of communication makes education vital and vibrant. Reason R: Semiotic narration does not lend itself credence to make it an efficient mode of teaching. In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.
i ➥ Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
ii ➥ Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
Q7➡| Which of the following committees/commissions in their report recommended that science Education and Research should receive high priority to accelerate national economy?
Q8➡| Which of the following constitutes the ability (can do) component for describing the competence of a teacher? A. Confidence in performing teaching task B. Knowledge of the subject being taught C. Skill in analyzing the learning tasks D. Experience in handling learning task related situations E. Commitment to organizing teaching-learning tasks Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Q11➡| Given below are two statements Statement I: Maximum performance tests are designed to assess the upper limits of the examinees knowledge and abilities Statement II: Typical response tests are designed to measure the behaviour and characteristics of examinees In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.
i ➥ Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
ii ➥ Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
iii ➥ Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
iv ➥ Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
Q13➡| All knowable objects are nameable; The pot is a knowable object; Therefore, the pot is nameable The above is an example of which type of inference?
Q14➡| Identify the correct sequence in increasing order of the carbon content per unit mass of the following reservoirs of carbon in terrestrial environment A. Plants B. Peat C. Soil organic matter D. Fossil fuels Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
Q15➡| When reflective level teaching and learning are successful, students emerge with A. A strong logical basis to retain the information B. An enlarged store of tested insights of a generalized character C. A firm relational structure in the items of information D. An enhanced ability to develop and solve problems on their own E. Seeing relationship and tool use of a fact Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Q18➡| Given below are two statements Statement I: Action research is cyclic in so far as it involves ′ Plan-Act-Observe Reflect cycle Statement II: The purpose of Action research is to develop a theory to explain causal relationship among variables In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.
i ➥ Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
ii ➥ Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
iii ➥ Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
iv ➥ Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
Q23➡| A research scholar while writing his/her thesis uses ICT at various stages of research conducted. He/she justifies the conceptual errors in interpreting results attributing the same to the specific ICT devices. This will be labelled as.
Q26➡| Which of the following features of research are associated with qualitative inquiring? A. Actual settings as the direct source of data B. Data collection under controlled conditions C. Concern with process rather than simply with outcomes D. Establishing relationships and explaining the causes of changes E. Concerned with what are called participant perspectives Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Q27➡| The chronological sequence in the development of communication system is A. Emergence of language B. Cave paintings C. Interpersonal communication (verbal) D. Appearance of printing technology E. Telecommunication system Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
Q31➡| The positive impact of communication depends upon A. Acceptance of barriers B. Planning C. Sudden expression D. Media selection E. Use of language Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Q34➡| Given below are two statements Statement I: If the ratio of the speeds of A and B is a: b, then the ratio of the times taken by them to cover the same distance is b: a Statement II: Suppose two men are moving in the same direction at u m/s and v m/s respectively, where u > v, then their relative speed is (u + v) m/s In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.
i ➥ Both Statement I and Statement II are true
ii ➥ Both Statement I and Statement II are false
iii ➥ Statement I is correct but Statement II is false
iv ➥ Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is true
Q35➡| A university teacher plans to study the performance of students in implementing specific projects in terms of their creativity level ″ . Which method of research will be appropriate to use in this context?
Q37➡| Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R Assertion A: Global emissions of carbon dioxide stagnated during the years 2014 – 2016 Reason R: Strong energy efficiency improvement measures and low carbon technologies were deployed during 2014 – 2016 In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.
i ➥ Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
ii ➥ Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
Q39➡| According to the classification of Ministry of New and Renewable Energy and Central Electricity Authority of India, small hydro power plants have capacity in the range.
Q43➡| Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R Assertion A: Lakes are less prone to getting polluted than rivers Reason R: Water in lakes gets replaced through natural processes In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below,
i ➥ Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
ii ➥ Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
Q45➡| Identify the characteristics of a good research hypothesis from the following A. Amenable to empirical verification B. Conceptual clarity in defining the variables C. Plausibility of relationships postulated D. Accessibility in terms of researcher՚s resources E. Extent of its non-refutability Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A > C 2. C > A > B 3. C > B > A 4. B > C > A”>